LR(k) to LR(1) grammar conversion
问题 I am confused by the following quote from Wikipedia: In other words, if a language was reasonable enough to allow an efficient one-pass parser, it could be described by an LR(k) grammar. And that grammar could always be mechanically transformed into an equivalent (but larger) LR(1) grammar. So an LR(1) parsing method was, in theory, powerful enough to handle any reasonable language. In practice, the natural grammars for many programming languages are close to being LR(1).[citation needed]