问题
I've noticed that aggregate() appears to return its result ordered by the grouping column(s). Is this a guarantee? Can this be relied upon in surrounding logic?
A couple of examples:
set.seed(1); df <- data.frame(group=sample(letters[1:3],10,replace=T),value=1:10);
aggregate(value~group,df,sum);
## group value
## 1 a 16
## 2 b 22
## 3 c 17
And with two groups (notice the second group is ordered first, then the first group to break ties):
set.seed(1); df <- data.frame(group1=sample(letters[1:3],10,replace=T),group2=sample(letters[4:6],10,replace=T),value=1:10);
aggregate(value~group1+group2,df,sum);
## group1 group2 value
## 1 a d 1
## 2 b d 2
## 3 b e 9
## 4 c e 10
## 5 a f 15
## 6 b f 11
## 7 c f 7
Note: I'm asking because I just came up with an answer for Aggregating while merging two dataframes in R which, at least in its current form at the time of writing, depends on aggregate() returning its result ordered by the grouping column.
回答1:
Yes, as long as you understand the natural ordering of factors to be by their integer keys. You can see this in the code:
y <- as.data.frame(by, stringsAsFactors = FALSE)
... # y becomes the "integerized" dataframe of index vectors
grp <- rank(do.call(paste, c(lapply(rev(y), ident), list(sep = "."))),
ties.method = "min")
y <- y[match(sort(unique(grp)), grp, 0L), , drop = FALSE]
...
来源：https://stackoverflow.com/questions/30541130/does-aggregate-guarantee-that-the-result-will-be-ordered-by-the-grouping-colum