Is it possible to call a user-defined function without the schema name?

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野的像风
野的像风 2020-12-17 10:35

I\'m using MS SQL 2005 and when I create a function I need to put the schema name to call it:

select dbo.MyFunc

All my tables are also in \

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  •  [愿得一人]
    2020-12-17 11:02

    Short answer, no it isn't.

    You should consider to prefix all your database objects with the schema owner to avoid having sql server to "look it up".

    It makes your statements more readable and gives a slight increase in performance (although you'd probably won't notice it).

    Regards, Lieven

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