Is it safe to say, when a 1NF table has no composite candidate keys (primary keys consisting of more than one column), the table is automatically in 2NF?
Yes, the table can violate 2NF when it has only one column in its primary key. The basic idea of 2NF is to have all the fields of your table directly dependent/related to the primary key. The example that @A B gives explains the same point.