Can this be done in JavaScript?
type == 1 ? function1() : function2();
Yes, that's valid code. It will invoke either function1() or function2(), but not both - depending on the value of type.
It won't invoke two functions. It will invoke one of your two functions.
来源：https://stackoverflow.com/questions/1655037/using-ternary-operator-in-javascript-to-invoke-two-functions