inference

can any one plz let me know that how drool guvnor work i went to guvnor documentation but couldn't understand the core logic of how rules are processed and how we can use drools guvnor in coherence with java code Basically i want to know how java code interacts with drools guvnor api. There is very less documentation about latest drool 6. I suggest you watch this presentation by Mark Proctor on drools 6 (Drools Project Lead at Red Hat) and visit his Youtube Channel to watch screencasts of drools workbench and tutorials on building example applications. 来源： https://stackoverflow.com/questions

I am a beginner to SPARQL and was wondering if there was a query which could help me return transitive relations. For example the n3 file below I would want a query that would return "a is the sameas c" or something along those lines. Thanks @prefix : <http://websitename.com/links/> . @prefix owl: <http://www.w3.org/2002/07/owl#> . :a owl:sameas :b. :b owl:sameas :c. You can use property paths if you are using a suitably enabled SPARQL 1.1 engine, you've tagged your question Jena so I assume you are using its ARQ engine which supports this feature. So you can write a query like the following:

From this Oracle Java tutorial: The WildcardError example produces a capture error when compiled: public class WildcardError { void foo(List<?> i) { i.set(0, i.get(0)); } } After this error demonstration, they fix the problem by using a helper method: public class WildcardFixed { void foo(List<?> i) { fooHelper(i); } // Helper method created so that the wildcard can be captured // through type inference. private <T> void fooHelper(List<T> l) { l.set(0, l.get(0)); } } First, they say that the list input parameter ( i ) is seen as an Object : In this example, the compiler processes the i input

If I have a function template with typename T , where the compiler can set the type by itself, I do not have to write the type explicitly when I call the function like: template < typename T > T min( T v1, T v2 ) { return ( v1 < v2 ) ? v1: v2; } int i1 = 1, i2 = 2; int i3 = min( i1, i2 ); //no explicit <type> But if I have a function template with two different typenames like: template < typename TOut, typename TIn > TOut round( TIn v ) { return (TOut)( v + 0.5 ); } double d = 1.54; int i = round<int>(d); //explicit <int> Is it true that I always have to specify at least 1 typename? I assume

my question today is pretty simple: why can't the compiler infer template parameters from class constructors, much as it can do from function parameters? For example, why couldn't the following code be valid: template<typename obj> class Variable { obj data; public: Variable(obj d) { data = d; } }; int main() { int num = 2; Variable var(num); //would be equivalent to Variable<int> var(num), return 0; //but actually a compile error } As I say, I understand that this isn't valid, so my question is why isn't it? Would allowing this create any major syntactic holes? Is there an instance where one